Welcome to the ultimate online resource for the Medical Licensing Assessment (MLA) UK Medical School Exam, designed to equip aspiring medical professionals with comprehensive study materials and practice tests.
Our questions are designed to follow the content map as outlined by the GMC here.
Our questions are designed to follow the content map as outlined by the GMC here.
UKMLA (AKT) example questions:
Example topic: Acute and emergency
A 58-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with severe chest pain that radiates towards his left arm. He is known to have hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. On examination, he is diaphoretic and looks anxious. The ECG reveals ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, and his initial troponin level is significantly high. What should be the most appropriate immediate management for this patient given these observations?
| Test | Result |
|---|---|
| ECG | ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF |
| Troponin | Significantly elevated |
This is the best answer.
Primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is the most appropriate immediate management for this patient presenting with an acute ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). The goal of PCI is to promptly restore blood flow to the affected coronary artery, thereby minimising myocardial damage and improving survival outcomes. Clinical guidelines strongly recommend PCI as the first-line treatment for STEMI, provided it can be performed within 120 minutes of first medical contact. This intervention has been shown to significantly reduce mortality and morbidity compared to other treatments. Given the patient's presentation with severe chest pain, ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, and elevated troponin levels, immediate PCI is the best course of action to achieve reperfusion and prevent further cardiac damage.
Administering aspirin is a critical component of the initial management of acute coronary syndromes, as it helps to inhibit platelet aggregation and reduce thrombus formation. However, while aspirin is essential, it is not sufficient as a standalone treatment for a patient with STEMI. Administering morphine can help alleviate pain and reduce anxiety, but it does not address the underlying cause of the myocardial infarction. Administering oxygen is recommended only if the patient is hypoxic, as routine oxygen therapy in non-hypoxic patients has not been shown to improve outcomes and may even be harmful. Administering beta-blockers can help reduce myocardial oxygen demand and control arrhythmias, but they are not the immediate priority in the acute management of STEMI. The primary goal is to restore coronary perfusion, which is best achieved through primary percutaneous coronary intervention.
Administering aspirin is a critical component of the initial management of acute coronary syndromes, as it helps to inhibit platelet aggregation and reduce thrombus formation. However, while aspirin is essential, it is not sufficient as a standalone treatment for a patient with STEMI. Administering morphine can help alleviate pain and reduce anxiety, but it does not address the underlying cause of the myocardial infarction. Administering oxygen is recommended only if the patient is hypoxic, as routine oxygen therapy in non-hypoxic patients has not been shown to improve outcomes and may even be harmful. Administering beta-blockers can help reduce myocardial oxygen demand and control arrhythmias, but they are not the immediate priority in the acute management of STEMI. The primary goal is to restore coronary perfusion, which is best achieved through primary percutaneous coronary intervention.
Example topic: General practice and primary healthcare
A 45-year-old woman comes to your GP clinic complaining of fatigue, palpitations, and shortness of breath when exerting herself. She notes that her menstrual periods have been excessively heavy lately. Physical examination reveals pallor and a heart rate of 100 beats per minute. Blood tests show a haemoglobin level of 9 g/dL, an MCV of 70 fL, and a ferritin level of 10 ng/mL. What is the most likely diagnosis and the first step in management?
| Test | Result |
|---|---|
| Haemoglobin | 90 g/L |
| MCV | 70 fL |
| Ferritin | 10 µmol/L |
This is the best answer.
The most likely diagnosis for this patient is iron deficiency anaemia. This conclusion is based on her clinical presentation and laboratory findings. The patient reports fatigue, palpitations, and shortness of breath on exertion, which are common symptoms of anaemia. Additionally, she has a history of heavy menstrual periods, which is a common cause of iron deficiency in premenopausal women. Her examination findings of pallor and an elevated heart rate further support the diagnosis of anaemia. The laboratory results show a haemoglobin level of 9 g/dL, which is below the normal range, indicating anaemia. The mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is 70 fL, which is below the normal range of 80-100 fL, indicating microcytic anaemia. The ferritin level is 10 ng/mL, which is below the normal range of 15-200 ng/mL, indicating low iron stores. The best initial management for iron deficiency anaemia is to start oral iron supplements to replenish the body's iron stores and correct the anaemia.
Recommending dietary changes alone for iron deficiency anaemia is not the best initial management because it may not provide sufficient iron to correct the anaemia quickly. While dietary changes can help maintain iron levels, oral iron supplements are necessary to rapidly replenish iron stores and improve haemoglobin levels. Anaemia of chronic disease is not the most likely diagnosis in this case because the patient's history and laboratory findings are more consistent with iron deficiency anaemia. Anaemia of chronic disease typically presents with normal or elevated ferritin levels, whereas this patient has low ferritin levels. Starting erythropoietin is not appropriate for iron deficiency anaemia and is typically reserved for anaemia of chronic disease or renal anaemia. Pernicious anaemia is also unlikely in this case because it typically presents with macrocytic anaemia (elevated MCV), whereas this patient has microcytic anaemia (low MCV). Additionally, pernicious anaemia is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, which is not supported by the patient's history or laboratory findings. Therefore, starting vitamin B12 injections is not appropriate.
Recommending dietary changes alone for iron deficiency anaemia is not the best initial management because it may not provide sufficient iron to correct the anaemia quickly. While dietary changes can help maintain iron levels, oral iron supplements are necessary to rapidly replenish iron stores and improve haemoglobin levels. Anaemia of chronic disease is not the most likely diagnosis in this case because the patient's history and laboratory findings are more consistent with iron deficiency anaemia. Anaemia of chronic disease typically presents with normal or elevated ferritin levels, whereas this patient has low ferritin levels. Starting erythropoietin is not appropriate for iron deficiency anaemia and is typically reserved for anaemia of chronic disease or renal anaemia. Pernicious anaemia is also unlikely in this case because it typically presents with macrocytic anaemia (elevated MCV), whereas this patient has microcytic anaemia (low MCV). Additionally, pernicious anaemia is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, which is not supported by the patient's history or laboratory findings. Therefore, starting vitamin B12 injections is not appropriate.
Example topic: Clinical haematology
A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a severe episode of epistaxis that has been ongoing for 45 minutes. He reports a history of hypertension, which is currently managed with medication. On examination, his blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg and heart rate is 98 bpm. Despite initial measures such as pinching the nose and leaning forward, the bleeding has not subsided. Laboratory investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 120 g/L and platelet count of 150,000/µL. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
| Test | Result |
|---|---|
| Haemoglobin | 120 g/L |
| Platelet Count | 150,000/µL |
This is the best answer.
Nasal packing is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient with severe epistaxis that has not responded to initial measures such as pinching the nose and leaning forward. Given the patient's elevated blood pressure and ongoing bleeding, nasal packing can provide immediate mechanical pressure to control the haemorrhage. This method is effective in tamponading the bleeding vessels within the nasal cavity, thereby reducing blood loss and stabilising the patient. Additionally, nasal packing can be performed quickly and is readily available in most emergency settings, making it a practical choice for acute management.
Topical vasoconstrictors, while useful in some cases of epistaxis, may not be sufficient for severe or prolonged bleeding as seen in this patient. They work by constricting blood vessels to reduce blood flow, but in cases where initial measures have failed, more definitive intervention like nasal packing is warranted. Cauterisation is another effective method for controlling epistaxis, particularly for visible bleeding points, but it may not be immediately feasible in an emergency setting without specialised equipment or expertise. Tranexamic acid, an antifibrinolytic agent, can help reduce bleeding by stabilising clots, but it is generally used as an adjunct to other treatments rather than a primary intervention. Intravenous fluids are important for maintaining haemodynamic stability, especially if there is significant blood loss, but they do not address the source of the bleeding directly and should be used in conjunction with other haemostatic measures.
Topical vasoconstrictors, while useful in some cases of epistaxis, may not be sufficient for severe or prolonged bleeding as seen in this patient. They work by constricting blood vessels to reduce blood flow, but in cases where initial measures have failed, more definitive intervention like nasal packing is warranted. Cauterisation is another effective method for controlling epistaxis, particularly for visible bleeding points, but it may not be immediately feasible in an emergency setting without specialised equipment or expertise. Tranexamic acid, an antifibrinolytic agent, can help reduce bleeding by stabilising clots, but it is generally used as an adjunct to other treatments rather than a primary intervention. Intravenous fluids are important for maintaining haemodynamic stability, especially if there is significant blood loss, but they do not address the source of the bleeding directly and should be used in conjunction with other haemostatic measures.
Example topic: Medicine of older adult
A 75-year-old woman visits the clinic with her daughter, who mentions that her mother has been facing memory problems over the last year. She frequently loses items, has trouble recalling recent activities, and finds it challenging to handle tasks like managing her finances. On examination, the patient is alert and knows who and where she is, but is unsure of the date. There are no specific neurological abnormalities. Her Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) score is 23 out of 30. Blood tests including full blood count, electrolytes, liver function tests, and thyroid function tests are all normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
This is the best answer.
Alzheimer's disease is the most likely diagnosis for this patient. The patient's symptoms of increasing forgetfulness, difficulty with recent memory, and challenges with complex tasks such as managing finances are characteristic of Alzheimer's disease. The Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) score of 23/30 indicates mild cognitive impairment, which is consistent with early-stage Alzheimer's disease. Additionally, the absence of focal neurological deficits and normal blood test results further support this diagnosis, as they help rule out other potential causes of cognitive decline such as metabolic or structural brain abnormalities.
Vascular dementia is less likely because it typically presents with a stepwise progression of symptoms and is often associated with a history of cerebrovascular events, which are not mentioned in this case. Lewy body dementia often presents with visual hallucinations, fluctuating cognition, and parkinsonian symptoms, none of which are described in this patient. Frontotemporal dementia usually presents with prominent changes in personality, behaviour, and language, rather than the memory impairment seen in this patient. Normal ageing can involve some degree of forgetfulness, but the extent of this patient's cognitive decline, as evidenced by her MMSE score and difficulties with daily tasks, exceeds what would be expected with normal ageing.
Vascular dementia is less likely because it typically presents with a stepwise progression of symptoms and is often associated with a history of cerebrovascular events, which are not mentioned in this case. Lewy body dementia often presents with visual hallucinations, fluctuating cognition, and parkinsonian symptoms, none of which are described in this patient. Frontotemporal dementia usually presents with prominent changes in personality, behaviour, and language, rather than the memory impairment seen in this patient. Normal ageing can involve some degree of forgetfulness, but the extent of this patient's cognitive decline, as evidenced by her MMSE score and difficulties with daily tasks, exceeds what would be expected with normal ageing.
Example topic: Clinical haematology
A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, palpitations, and shortness of breath during physical activities. She has a past history of heavy menstrual bleeding, and her last period was two weeks ago. During the physical examination, she looks pale and has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute. Her blood test results show a haemoglobin level of 8 g/L, a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 72 fL, and ferritin level of 10 µmol/L. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
| Test | Result |
|---|---|
| Haemoglobin | 8 g/L |
| MCV | 72 fL |
| Ferritin | 10 µmol/L |
This is the best answer.
The most appropriate initial management for this patient is oral iron supplements. The patient's symptoms of fatigue, palpitations, and shortness of breath, along with her history of menorrhagia, suggest iron deficiency anaemia. This is further supported by her blood test results, which show a low haemoglobin level, reduced mean corpuscular volume (MCV), and low ferritin level. Oral iron supplements are the first-line treatment for iron deficiency anaemia as they are effective, easy to administer, and generally well-tolerated. They help replenish iron stores and increase haemoglobin levels, thereby alleviating symptoms. It is important to monitor the patient's response to treatment and adjust the dosage as necessary.
Intravenous iron therapy is not the best initial management for this patient because it is typically reserved for cases where oral iron supplements are ineffective, not tolerated, or when there is a need for rapid replenishment of iron stores. Dietary modification alone is insufficient to correct significant iron deficiency anaemia, although it can be a useful adjunct to oral iron supplements. Blood transfusion is generally reserved for patients with severe anaemia or those who are symptomatic and haemodynamically unstable, which is not indicated in this case. Vitamin B12 injections are not appropriate as the patient's anaemia is due to iron deficiency, not vitamin B12 deficiency.
Intravenous iron therapy is not the best initial management for this patient because it is typically reserved for cases where oral iron supplements are ineffective, not tolerated, or when there is a need for rapid replenishment of iron stores. Dietary modification alone is insufficient to correct significant iron deficiency anaemia, although it can be a useful adjunct to oral iron supplements. Blood transfusion is generally reserved for patients with severe anaemia or those who are symptomatic and haemodynamically unstable, which is not indicated in this case. Vitamin B12 injections are not appropriate as the patient's anaemia is due to iron deficiency, not vitamin B12 deficiency.
The Applied Knowledge Test (AKT) is a crucial multiple-choice exam within the UK Medical Licensing Assessment (MLA), mandatory for graduates from UK medical schools starting in the 2024-25 academic year. To join the medical register, students must also pass the Clinical and Professional Skills Assessment (CPSA), the practical component of the MLA.
The AKT, part of the MLA, features two papers with 100 single best answer (SBA) questions each, designed nationally by the Medical Schools Council. This exam, akin to the Prescribing Safety Assessment (PSA), is delivered online under exam conditions with in-person invigilation at each medical school. Despite its national design, local medical schools handle the logistical aspects, ensuring consistent delivery across institutions.
Overall, the MLA exam series serves as a rigorous evaluation ensuring medical graduates meet the standards required to practice safely and effectively within the UK healthcare system.
The AKT, part of the MLA, features two papers with 100 single best answer (SBA) questions each, designed nationally by the Medical Schools Council. This exam, akin to the Prescribing Safety Assessment (PSA), is delivered online under exam conditions with in-person invigilation at each medical school. Despite its national design, local medical schools handle the logistical aspects, ensuring consistent delivery across institutions.
Overall, the MLA exam series serves as a rigorous evaluation ensuring medical graduates meet the standards required to practice safely and effectively within the UK healthcare system.
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