Enhance your readiness and boost your confidence with our comprehensive Practice Question Bank, specifically designed for the PANE applied knowledge test exam.
Our Question Bank offers a large collection of practice questions, designed to mirror the format and difficulty of the actual PANE exam. Our questions follow the PANE syllabus as outlined by the Faculty of Physician Associates here. Each question is accompanied by detailed explanations, helping you to understand the reasoning behind the correct answers and solidifying your knowledge base. The questions cover all essential topics, ensuring a thorough preparation experience.
Our user-friendly online platform allows you to track your progress, identify areas for improvement, and customize your study sessions according to your needs.
Our Question Bank offers a large collection of practice questions, designed to mirror the format and difficulty of the actual PANE exam. Our questions follow the PANE syllabus as outlined by the Faculty of Physician Associates here. Each question is accompanied by detailed explanations, helping you to understand the reasoning behind the correct answers and solidifying your knowledge base. The questions cover all essential topics, ensuring a thorough preparation experience.
Our user-friendly online platform allows you to track your progress, identify areas for improvement, and customize your study sessions according to your needs.
PANE example questions:
Example topic: Acute and emergency care (inc. toxicology)
A middle-aged man, aged 45, is transported to the emergency department by ambulance after being found unconscious at home by his relatives. Upon his arrival, he is apnoeic and pulseless. His medical record reveals he suffers from hypertension and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Swift evaluation and intervention are essential in this situation. What is the most appropriate immediate action to manage this patient?
This is the best answer.
In the scenario described, the patient is in respiratory arrest and has no palpable pulse, indicating a likely cardiac arrest. The most appropriate immediate action is to start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). CPR is a critical life-saving procedure that maintains circulatory flow and oxygenation to vital organs until advanced care can be provided. Early initiation of CPR has been shown to significantly improve survival rates and neurological outcomes in patients experiencing cardiac arrest. The primary goal is to restore spontaneous circulation and breathing, and this is best achieved by starting chest compressions and rescue breaths as soon as possible.
Administering oxygen via a face mask is not the most appropriate initial step in this scenario because the patient is not breathing and has no pulse. Oxygen administration is beneficial for patients who are breathing but hypoxic, not for those in cardiac arrest. Attaching a defibrillator and assessing rhythm is important, but it should be done after initiating CPR. Immediate chest compressions are crucial to maintain circulation while the defibrillator is being prepared. Establishing intravenous access is necessary for administering medications during resuscitation, but it is not the first priority. CPR should be started immediately to maintain circulation. Administering bronchodilators is not appropriate in this context because the patient is in cardiac arrest, and bronchodilators are used to manage airway constriction in conditions like asthma or COPD, not cardiac arrest.
Administering oxygen via a face mask is not the most appropriate initial step in this scenario because the patient is not breathing and has no pulse. Oxygen administration is beneficial for patients who are breathing but hypoxic, not for those in cardiac arrest. Attaching a defibrillator and assessing rhythm is important, but it should be done after initiating CPR. Immediate chest compressions are crucial to maintain circulation while the defibrillator is being prepared. Establishing intravenous access is necessary for administering medications during resuscitation, but it is not the first priority. CPR should be started immediately to maintain circulation. Administering bronchodilators is not appropriate in this context because the patient is in cardiac arrest, and bronchodilators are used to manage airway constriction in conditions like asthma or COPD, not cardiac arrest.
Example topic: Cardiovascular
A man aged 67 presents at the clinic with worsening dyspnoea over six months. He also has chest pains and palpitations. Examination detects a mid-diastolic murmur loudest at the apex, and he has a past history of rheumatic fever. An echocardiogram identifies thickened mitral valve leaflets with decreased mobility and an enlarged left atrium. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Investigation | Result |
---|---|
Echocardiogram | Thickened mitral valve leaflets, reduced mobility, increased left atrial size |
Chest X-ray | Normal heart size, prominent left atrium |
This is the best answer.
The most likely diagnosis for this patient is mitral stenosis. The patient's symptoms of increasing shortness of breath, chest pain, and palpitations, along with the mid-diastolic murmur heard best at the apex, are classic signs of mitral stenosis. Additionally, the patient's history of rheumatic fever in his youth is a significant risk factor for developing mitral stenosis, as rheumatic fever can cause chronic damage to the mitral valve. The echocardiogram findings of thickened mitral valve leaflets with reduced mobility and an increased left atrial size further support the diagnosis of mitral stenosis. These findings are indicative of the restricted blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, which is characteristic of mitral stenosis.
Aortic stenosis is not the best answer because it typically presents with a systolic murmur heard best at the right upper sternal border, not a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex. Mitral regurgitation is characterised by a holosystolic murmur heard best at the apex, which radiates to the axilla, and does not match the patient's murmur description. Tricuspid stenosis would present with a diastolic murmur heard best at the lower left sternal border, and it is less common than mitral stenosis, especially without a history of right-sided heart issues. An atrial septal defect usually presents with a systolic murmur and fixed splitting of the second heart sound, which does not align with the patient's murmur or echocardiogram findings.
Aortic stenosis is not the best answer because it typically presents with a systolic murmur heard best at the right upper sternal border, not a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex. Mitral regurgitation is characterised by a holosystolic murmur heard best at the apex, which radiates to the axilla, and does not match the patient's murmur description. Tricuspid stenosis would present with a diastolic murmur heard best at the lower left sternal border, and it is less common than mitral stenosis, especially without a history of right-sided heart issues. An atrial septal defect usually presents with a systolic murmur and fixed splitting of the second heart sound, which does not align with the patient's murmur or echocardiogram findings.
Example topic: Child and adolescent health
A 12-year-old boy arrives at the clinic complaining of a three-month period marked by excessive thirst, frequent urination, and unintended weight loss. His mother has observed that he is unusually fatigued and irritable. Upon examination, the boy appears slender and slightly dehydrated. Blood tests indicate a fasting blood glucose level of 12 mmol/L and a HbA1c of 8.5%. His urine test is positive for both glucose and ketones. What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?
Test | Result |
---|---|
Fasting Blood Glucose | 12 mmol/L |
HbA1c | 8.5% |
Urine Glucose | Positive |
Urine Ketones | Positive |
This is the best answer.
The most appropriate next step in managing this patient is to start insulin therapy. The clinical presentation and laboratory findings are indicative of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM), a condition where the pancreas produces little to no insulin. The symptoms of increased thirst, frequent urination, unintended weight loss, and the presence of glucose and ketones in the urine are classic signs of T1DM. The elevated fasting blood glucose level of 12 mmol/L and HbA1c of 8.5% further confirm the diagnosis. Immediate initiation of insulin therapy is crucial to manage hyperglycaemia and prevent diabetic ketoacidosis, a potentially life-threatening complication. Insulin therapy will help normalise blood glucose levels, alleviate symptoms, and improve the patient's overall health and well-being.
Referring to a paediatric endocrinologist, while important for long-term management, is not the immediate next step. The patient requires urgent intervention to stabilise blood glucose levels. Educating on lifestyle changes is essential for managing diabetes, but it is not sufficient as a standalone treatment for T1DM, which requires insulin therapy. Initiating metformin is inappropriate in this case as it is typically used for Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus and is not effective in T1DM, where insulin deficiency is the primary issue. Advising increased water intake may help with dehydration but does not address the underlying problem of insulin deficiency and hyperglycaemia. Therefore, these options are not the best immediate steps in managing this patient's condition.
Referring to a paediatric endocrinologist, while important for long-term management, is not the immediate next step. The patient requires urgent intervention to stabilise blood glucose levels. Educating on lifestyle changes is essential for managing diabetes, but it is not sufficient as a standalone treatment for T1DM, which requires insulin therapy. Initiating metformin is inappropriate in this case as it is typically used for Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus and is not effective in T1DM, where insulin deficiency is the primary issue. Advising increased water intake may help with dehydration but does not address the underlying problem of insulin deficiency and hyperglycaemia. Therefore, these options are not the best immediate steps in managing this patient's condition.
Example topic: Endocrine and metabolic
During a routine check-up, a 45-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, both managed with medication, presents to your clinic. His BMI is 30, and he leads a sedentary life while consuming a diet high in saturated fats. Blood tests recently conducted reveal elevated levels of total cholesterol and LDL, coupled with low HDL. Although asymptomatic, he is concerned about his cardiovascular risk. Which is the most suitable next step to address his hyperlipidaemia?
Test | Result |
---|---|
Total Cholesterol | 6.5 mmol/L |
LDL | 4.2 mmol/L |
HDL | 0.9 mmol/L |
Triglycerides | 2.0 mmol/L |
This is the best answer.
Starting a statin is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's hyperlipidaemia due to his elevated cardiovascular risk. Statins are the first-line pharmacological treatment for hyperlipidaemia, particularly in patients with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, as these conditions further increase the risk of cardiovascular events. Statins work by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase, an enzyme involved in cholesterol synthesis, thereby lowering LDL cholesterol levels and reducing the risk of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease. Given the patient's elevated total cholesterol and LDL levels, along with his low HDL levels, initiating statin therapy is crucial to mitigate his cardiovascular risk. Lifestyle modifications, while important, may not be sufficient alone to achieve the necessary reduction in cholesterol levels in this high-risk patient.
Recommending lifestyle changes, referring to a dietitian, and increasing physical activity are all important components of managing hyperlipidaemia, but they are not the most appropriate next step for this patient. While lifestyle modifications can help reduce cholesterol levels, they may not be sufficient on their own for a patient with significant cardiovascular risk factors such as hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a high BMI. Referring to a dietitian can provide valuable dietary guidance, but it should be done in conjunction with pharmacological treatment. Increasing physical activity is beneficial for overall cardiovascular health, but again, it may not be enough to adequately lower cholesterol levels in this high-risk patient. No intervention needed is not appropriate given the patient's elevated cholesterol levels and significant cardiovascular risk factors. Immediate pharmacological intervention with a statin is necessary to effectively manage his hyperlipidaemia and reduce his risk of cardiovascular events.
Recommending lifestyle changes, referring to a dietitian, and increasing physical activity are all important components of managing hyperlipidaemia, but they are not the most appropriate next step for this patient. While lifestyle modifications can help reduce cholesterol levels, they may not be sufficient on their own for a patient with significant cardiovascular risk factors such as hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a high BMI. Referring to a dietitian can provide valuable dietary guidance, but it should be done in conjunction with pharmacological treatment. Increasing physical activity is beneficial for overall cardiovascular health, but again, it may not be enough to adequately lower cholesterol levels in this high-risk patient. No intervention needed is not appropriate given the patient's elevated cholesterol levels and significant cardiovascular risk factors. Immediate pharmacological intervention with a statin is necessary to effectively manage his hyperlipidaemia and reduce his risk of cardiovascular events.
Example topic: Ear, nose, and throat
A 28-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 5-day history of severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, and fever. On examination, he has a temperature of 38.5°C, cervical lymphadenopathy, and trismus. Oropharyngeal examination reveals swollen and erythematous tonsils with an asymmetrical bulge in the right tonsillar region pushing the uvula to the left. There is also muffled voice. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
This is the best answer.
The most appropriate initial management for this patient is needle aspiration of the abscess. The clinical presentation, including severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, fever, trismus, and the presence of an asymmetrical bulge in the tonsillar region pushing the uvula to the left, strongly suggests a peritonsillar abscess (quinsy). Needle aspiration is both diagnostic and therapeutic, as it allows for the drainage of the abscess, which can relieve symptoms and prevent further complications. This procedure is typically performed under local anaesthesia and can provide immediate relief from pain and swelling. Additionally, it helps in obtaining a sample for culture to guide further antibiotic therapy.
Intravenous antibiotics alone are not the best initial management because they do not address the immediate need to drain the abscess, which is crucial for symptom relief and preventing complications. While antibiotics are important in treating the underlying infection, they should be used in conjunction with drainage procedures. Oral antibiotics are similarly insufficient as a standalone treatment for a peritonsillar abscess due to the need for immediate drainage. Supportive care with analgesics and hydration can help manage symptoms but does not address the underlying abscess, making it an inadequate initial treatment. Sending the patient home with throat lozenges is inappropriate and potentially dangerous, as it fails to treat the abscess and could lead to worsening of the condition or serious complications such as airway obstruction or spread of the infection.
Intravenous antibiotics alone are not the best initial management because they do not address the immediate need to drain the abscess, which is crucial for symptom relief and preventing complications. While antibiotics are important in treating the underlying infection, they should be used in conjunction with drainage procedures. Oral antibiotics are similarly insufficient as a standalone treatment for a peritonsillar abscess due to the need for immediate drainage. Supportive care with analgesics and hydration can help manage symptoms but does not address the underlying abscess, making it an inadequate initial treatment. Sending the patient home with throat lozenges is inappropriate and potentially dangerous, as it fails to treat the abscess and could lead to worsening of the condition or serious complications such as airway obstruction or spread of the infection.
To become a qualified Physician Associate (PA) in the UK, students must pass the Physician Associate National Examination (PANE), as mandated by the Faculty of Physician Associates (FPA). The PANE is administered by the Assessment Unit for the Royal College of Physicians (RCP). Eligibility to take the PANE requires completion of the Competence and Curriculum Framework for Physician Assistants through a UK university's postgraduate diploma or master’s programme in Physician Associate Studies, with the completion signed off by the university exam board.
The PANE consists of two parts: a 200-question, single best answer, knowledge-based assessment taken online, and a 14-station objective structured clinical examination (OSCE) currently conducted at the Spine in Liverpool. Successful candidates who are members of the FPA can then be registered on the Physician Associate Managed Voluntary Register (PAMVR). This registration is essential for practicing as a qualified Physician Associate in the UK.
The knowledge-based assessment is an online test comprising 200 single best answer (SBA) questions. These questions cover a broad range of medical topics, including clinical medicine, pharmacology, ethics, and patient care, testing the candidates' theoretical understanding and decision-making abilities. Each question presents a clinical scenario with multiple answer options, of which the candidate must select the single most appropriate response.
The PANE consists of two parts: a 200-question, single best answer, knowledge-based assessment taken online, and a 14-station objective structured clinical examination (OSCE) currently conducted at the Spine in Liverpool. Successful candidates who are members of the FPA can then be registered on the Physician Associate Managed Voluntary Register (PAMVR). This registration is essential for practicing as a qualified Physician Associate in the UK.
The knowledge-based assessment is an online test comprising 200 single best answer (SBA) questions. These questions cover a broad range of medical topics, including clinical medicine, pharmacology, ethics, and patient care, testing the candidates' theoretical understanding and decision-making abilities. Each question presents a clinical scenario with multiple answer options, of which the candidate must select the single most appropriate response.
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